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Wednesday, 12 December 2012

Applied thermodynamics-Model question paper for B.E/B.Tech/M.E/M.Tech


1 (a) Explain the method to determine air consumption with the help of neat sketch. (6 Marks)
(b) Differentiate between brake power and frictional power. (4 Marks)
(c) Write notes on mechanical efficiency and volumetric efficiency. (6 Marks)
(d) A single cylinder petrol engine working on two-stroke cycle develops indicated power of 5kW. If the mean effective pressure is 7 bar and piston diameter is 100 mm, calculate the average piston speed. (4 Marks)
2(a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of excess air in combustion? (4 Marks)
(b)Explain complete and incomplete combustion. (6 Marks)
(c) Write a note on enthalpy and internal energy of combustion. (6 Marks)
(d) Determine the molal analysis of products of combustion when octane C8H18 is burned with 200% of air. (4 Marks)
3(a) Describe the air standard Otto cycle and derive an expression for efficiency as a function of compression ratio. (8 Marks)
(b) Distinguish between air standard cycle and actual cycle in general. What are the reasons for deviations? (8 Marks)
(c) A reversible engine converts one-sixth of the heat input into work, when the temperature of sink is reduced to 700C, its efficiency is doubled. Find the temperature of source and sink. (4 Marks)
4(a) Obtain an expression for thermal efficiency of dual cycle in terms of compression ratio, cut-off ratio and pressure ratio. (8 Marks)
(b) Explain various methods of improving the specific work output and thermal efficiency of gas turbine cycle. (8 Marks)
(c) A gas turbine set takes air at 270C and 1 atm. The pressure is 4 and the maximum temperature is 5600C. The compressor and turbine efficiencies are 0.83 and 0.85 respectively. Determine the overall efficiency if regenerator efficiency is 0.75. (4 Marks)
5(a) Discuss the effects of exhaust pressure and superheating on Rankine cycle efficiency. (6 Marks)
(b) Draw an ideal regenerative vapour power cycle on temperature entropy diagram. What are its advantages? How is the cycle approximated in practice? (10 Marks)
(c) In a thermal power plant, the saturated liquid water coming out of condenser is at 10 kPa. This liquid is to be recycled by pumping into boiler which is maintained at 2.5 kPa. Determine the work to be done (per kg of water) on the pump if isentropic efficiency of the pump is 0.8. (4 Marks)
6(a) What is multistage compression? Discuss the advantages. (6 Marks)
(b) Explain the need of multi-staging in reciprocating compression. (6 Marks)
(c) Enumerate the applications of compressed air. (4 Marks)
(d) A two stage air compressor receives air at 3 m3/min at 1 bar and delivers it at 10 bar. Assuming perfect intercooling, determine the power required. (4 Marks)
7(a) Write a note on essential properties of a refrigerant material. (4 Marks)
(b) Differentiate between vapour refrigeration system and air refrigeration system. (6 Marks)
(c) With neat sketch explain the working of the steam jet refrigeration. (6 Marks)
(d) Determine the least power of a perfect reversed heat engine that makes 400 kg of ice per hour at -80C from feed water at 180C. Assuming specific heat of ice as 2.09 kJ/kg and latent heat 334 kJ/kg. (4 Marks)
8(a) Sketch and explain various psychrometric processes on psychrometric chart. (6 Marks)
(b) Define the term bypass factor used for cooling or heating coil and find expression for the same. (6 Marks)
(c) Define terms wet bulb temperature and dew point temperature. (4 Marks)
(d)Moist air saturated at 1.70C enters the heating coil at the rate of 600 m3/min. Air leaves the coil at 37.80C. Find the required amount of heat addition per hour. (4 Marks)

Tuesday, 20 November 2012

Solid state physics-Model question paper for MSc/PhD

1(a) Outline Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom and derive an expression for the radius of the first Bohr orbit for the normal hydrogen atom. (6 Marks)
(b) What are ionic crystals? Explain the formation of an ionic crystal and obtain an expression for its cohesive energy. (6 Marks)
(c) Calculate the potential energy of the system of Na+ and Cl- ions when they are 0.2 nm apart. (4 Marks)
(d) The atomic weights and densities of aluminium and copper are 26.98 and 63.54 and 2700 kg/m3 and 8960 kg/m3 respectively. Calculate the number of atoms present in unit volume of aluminium and copper. (4 Marks)
2(a) Write a note on various symmetry operations present in a crystal. (4 Marks)
(b) What are Miller indices? Illustrate with examples. Draw (112) and (232) planes. (6 Marks)
(c) Explain with neat sketches the different imperfections in a crystal. (6 Marks)
(d) The fraction of vacancy sites in a metal is 10-10 at 5000C. What will be the fraction of vacancy sires at 10000C.? (4 Marks)
3(a) Discuss a method of investigating the structure of a single crystal using X-rays. (6 Marks)
(b) Write a note on relaxation time. (4 marks)
(c) Explain quantum mechanical tunneling in solids and its significance. (6 Marks)
(d) A copper wire whose diameter is 0.16 cm carries a steady current of 10 amp. What is the current density in the wire? Also calculate the drift velocity of the electrons in copper. (4 Marks)
4(a) Discuss salient features of Debye’s theory of specific heat of solids. (4 Marks)
(b) Discuss the domain structure in ferromagnetic materials. Explain the reasons for the strong ferromagnetic property found in iron, cobalt and nickel. (6 Marks)
(c) Discuss Langevin’s theory for a paramagnetic gas and obtain an expression for the paramagnetic susceptibility of the gas. What are the main drawbacks of this theory? (6 Marks)
(d) Compute Debye temperature for diamond whose atomic weight and Young’s modulus are 12 and 1012 Nm2 respectively. Density of diamond is 3500 kg/m3. (4 Marks)
5(a) Derive the London equations and explain the term coherent length. Explain 1-2-3 superconductors. (6 Marks)
(b) Discuss d.c and a.c Josephson effect and explain their importance. (6 Marks)
(c) Explain the properties of Cooper pairs. (4 Marks)
(d) The London penetration depths for Pb at 3K and 7.1K are respectively 39.6nm and 173 nm. Calculate its transition temperature as well penetration depth at 0K. (4 Marks)
6(a) Distinguish between Zener breakdown and avalanche breakdown. (4 Marks)
(b) Derive an expression for the density of holes in an intrinsic semiconductor. Suggest a method for evaluating the energy gap of the semiconductor. (6 Maks)
(c) Discuss the physical origin and uses of Hall effect. (6 Marks)
(d) The room temperature electron mobility in GaAs is 0.08 m2V-1S-1. Calculate the diffusion constant of electrons. (4 Marks)
7(a) What is meant by dielectric loss? State its importance. (4 Marks)
(b) How does dielectric constant of a solid containing permanent dipole vary with temperature? Illustrate your answer with an example. (6 Marks)
(c) Discuss the salient features of optical absorption in the case of metals, semiconductors and insulators. (6 Marks)
(d) A fiber optic link is operated at a wavelength of 1.3 mm. Find the maximum bit-rate of a 25 km line made from a multimodal step-index fiber. Given n1=1.46 and n2=1.46. (4 Marks)
8(a) Write notes on gaseous insulating materials and liquid insulating materials. (6 Marks)
(b) Differentiate between thermosetting resins and thermoplastic resins. (6 Marks)
(c) Write a note on laminated composites. (4 Marks)
(d) Calculate the Young’s modulus of a composite with glass fibers reinforced in phenol formaldehyde plastics. The volume fraction of plastics is 33.3%. The modulus of glass fiber is 6.9×104 MPa and that of polymers 6.9×102 MPa.  (4 Marks)

Thursday, 15 November 2012

Optical fiber communications-model question paper for B.E/B.Tech/M.E/M.Tech/MSc



1(a) Write a note on linear, elliptical and circular polarization. (6 Marks)
(b) Differentiate between step index fiber and graded index fiber. (4 Marks)
(c) Explain vapour-phase axial deposition method of optic fiber fabrication. (6 Marks)
(d) A signal passes through three cascaded amplifiers, each of which has a 5 dB gain. What is the total gain in dB? By what numerical factor is the signal amplified? (4 Marks)
2(a) Write notes on modal delay and group delay. (6 Marks)
(b) What is material dispersion? Explain. (6 Marks)
(c) Define external quantum efficiency. (4 Marks)
(d) An optical fiber 40 km long has a loss of 0.4 dB/km. What is the minimum input power to maintain an optical power of 2mW at the receiving end? (4 Marks)
3(a) Explain different lensing schemes for coupling improvement. (6 Marks)
(b) What is connector return loss? Explain. (4 Marks)
(c) Explain the construction and working of Avalanche photodiode. (6 Marks)
(d) Quantum efficiency of a silicon avalanche photodiode is 65% at a wavelength 900 nm. If an optical power of 0.5 mW produces a multiplied photocurrent of 10mA, determine the multiplication. (4 Marks)
4(a) Explain the working of high impedance amplifier and transimpedance amplifier. (6 Marks)
(b) What is an eye diagram? Explain. (4 Marks)
(c) Write notes on homodyne detection and heterodyne detection. (6 Marks)
(d) If a bit-corrupting noise burst lasts for 2ms, how many bits are affected at data rates of 10 Mb/s, 100 Mb/s and 2.5 Gb/s? (4 Marks)
5(a) What is extinction ratio penalty? Explain. (4 Marks)
(b) Explain the term ‘Chirping’. (4 Marks)
(c) Explain multichannel amplitude modulation and multichannel frequency modulation. (6 Marks)
(d) Calculate the optical modulation index of a laser for frequency division multiplexing of 60 FM signals. 30 of these signals have a per channel modulation index 3% and remaining 30 signals have per channel modulation index 4%. (6 Marks)
6(a) What is wavelength division multiplexing? Explain the operational principles. (8 Marks)
(b) Differentiate between a 2×2 fiber coupler and 2×2 waveguide coupler. (8 Marks)
(c) A DWDM optical transmission system is designed to have 100 GHz channel spacings. How many wavelength channels can be utilized in the 1536 to 1556 nm spectral band? (4 Marks)
7(a) Explain the construction and working of Erbium doped fiber amplifier, EDFA. (6 Marks)
(b) Explain the significance of Raman scattering in the design of Raman fiber amplifiers. (4 Marks)
(c) What is stimulated Brillouin scattering? Explain. (6 Marks)
(d) A single mode fiber has an attenuation of 0.55 dB/km at 1310 nm and 0.28 dB/km at 1550 nm. Compare the effective lengths of this fiber at 1310 nm and 1550 nm. (4 Marks)
8(a) Explain different network topologies with neat sketches. (8 Marks)
(b) Explain the terms optical packet switching and optical burst switching. (4 Marks)
(c) Explain the three layers of optical performance monitoring. (4 Marks)
(d) Show that when using an OTDR, an optical pulse width of 5 ns or less is required to locate a fiber fault to within ± 0.5 m of its true position. (4 Marks)

Tuesday, 6 November 2012

Computer integrated manufacturing-Model question paper for B.E/B.Tech

1(a) What is the difference between CIM I and CIM II? (5 Marks)
(b) A manufacturing based economy is superior to a service-based economy. Write your comments on this statement. (5 Marks)
(c) Explain the difference between odd and even parity systems. (6 Marks)
(d) Convert &H6C into binary form. (4 Marks)
2(a) Write a note on limitation of the BCD code and attraction of Gray code. (8Marks)
(b) Mention the advantages of fiber optic cabling. (6 Marks)
(c) A communication line operates at a signal-to noise ratio of 25 dB and a bandwidth of 4000Hz. What is the maximum speed at which data transfer is possible on this line? (6 Marks)
3(a) Discuss the reasons behind the need of database for a manufacturing company. (6 Marks)
(b) How does DBMS software differ from file manager software? (6 Marks)
(c) What is reverse engineering and when is it practiced? (4 Marks)
(d) What is the Rule of Ten? What is its message? (4 Marks)
4(a) Compare C-posts with G-posts. (6 Marks)
(b) Discuss the difficulties that may arise when product designers are entrusted with the task of developing part programs. (4 Marks)
(c) What is the role of FMS in CIM? (4 Marks)
(d) Describe the production method of a pair of scissors. Explain all the basic processes involved. (6 Marks)
5(a) Discuss the role of PLCs in CIM plants. (4 Marks)
(b) Discuss the major problems in integrating industrial robots with another flexible automation system of a modern plant such as AGV. (8 Marks)
(c) Discuss the role of AS/RS in streamlining material handling. How do they contribute to integration at the shop floor. (8 Marks)
6(a) What is SPC and how does it help in achieving the objectives of CIM? (8 Marks)
(b) Name two individuals who have made extraordinary contributions to the advancement of quality in last 30 years. Mention their contributions. (6 Marks)
(c) If the specification limits for the strip thickness of delicate strip are 8.96 and 9.44mm, find the values of PCR and Cpk and comment on them. Discard the out-of-control points before assessing the process capability. (6 Marks)
7(a) Explain the meaning of expert systems. How do they differ from conventional software? (6 Marks)
(b) Write a note on Dr.Aaron's views on modern manufacturing wisdom. (5 Marks)
(c) Write an outline for a CIM course. (4 Marks)
(d) Write job specifications for a CIM technician and CIM engineer. (5 Marks)
8(a) Write a note on use of laser in manufacturing. (4 Marks)
(b) What is meant by multimedia? Discuss how it can help CIM. (6 Marks)
(c) Mention the difficulties companies experience while implementing CIM face. (6 Marks)
(d) Write your comments on the statement, 'Taylorism is compatible with CIM'. (4 Marks)

Saturday, 3 November 2012

Engineering Economics-Model question paper for B.E/B.Tech

1(a) Why do economic projections for a future event tend to vary more widely than engineering estimates for performance for a new design? (4 Marks)
(b) Write a note on time-value equivalence. (6 Marks)
(c) Differentiate between simple interest and compound interest with examples. (6 Marks)
(d) A loan of $200 is made for a period of 13 months, from January 1 to January 31 the following year, at a simple interest rate of 10%.  What future amount is due at the end of the loan period? (4 Marks)
2(a) Write notes on valuation and future worth. (6 Marks)
(b) What is equivalent annual cost? Explain. (4 Marks)
(c) Explain the term perpetual life. (4 Marks)
(d) The lease on a commercial complex amounts to $10000 per month for 10 years. If payments are made on the first of each month, what is the present worth of the agreement at a nominal annual interest rate of 14%, compounded monthly? (6 Marks)
3(a) Explain the method of calculation of internal rate of return. (6 Marks)
(b) Write a note on classification of alternatives. (5 Marks)
(c) Write a note on obsolescence forced by competition. (4 Marks)
(d) A $5000 bond matures in 10 years and pays 2.5% interest twice a year. If the bond sold for $5050, what is the actual investment rate? (5 Marks)
4(a) Mention some importance irregularities in benefit/cost comparisons. Explain in detail. (10 Marks)
(b) Explain the method of dettermination of simulation in fighter pilot training. (6 Marks)
(c) A public good has a linear demand function such that the first unit available is valued at $100000, but when 50000 units are available, the per-unit value drops to $2. What is consumer's surplus when the demand is 30000 units? (4 Marks)
5(a) Explain straight line method of computing depreciation charges. (6 Marks)
(b) Write a short note on MACRS depreciable property. (6 Marks)
(c) What is effective income tax?(4 Marks)
(d) An asset with a tax life of 5 years was purchased 3 years ago at a cost of $10000. It now has a book value of $5000 based on MACRS straight line depreciation. If it is sold for $1000, what is its expected tax life? (4 Marks)
6(a) Explain the impact of inflation on economic valuations and stock market. (8 Marks)
(b) What are the different types of leases? (4 Marks)
(c) What is single parameter sensitivity? (4 Marks)
(d) An asset can be purchased for $80000 and will have a 10-year useful life. A suggested lease arrangement is to pay rental charges of $28000 for the first 4 years and then make annual payments of $1500 for the remaining 6 years. evaluate the suggestion. (4 marks)
7(a) Mention the basic concepts in break-even analysis. (8 Marks)
(b) What is dumping? (4 Marks)
(c) Define expected value. (4 Marks)
(d) What are acceptable investment diagrams. explain. (4 Marks)
8(a) Explain Monte Carlo simulation. (6 Marks)
(b) What is Bayesian analysis. Explain. (5Marks)
(c) Explain the procedures involved in attribute weighting. (5 Marks)
(d) Explain attribute value assessment. (4 Marks)

Wednesday, 31 October 2012

System software-Model question paper for B.E/B.Tech Computer Science

1(a) Write SIC instructions to swap the values of ALPHA and BETA. (6 Marks)
(b) Write a sequence of instructions for SIC to clear a 20-byte string to all banks. (6 Marks)
(c) Suppose that ALPHA is an array of 100 words. Write a sequence of instructions for SIC/XE to find the maximum element in the array and store results in MAX. (8 Marks)

2(a) Write an algorithm for SIC/XE assembler (6 Marks)
(b) How could an assembler that allows external references avoid the need for an EXTDEF statement? What would be the advantages and disadvantages of doing this? (5 Marks)
(c) The process of fixing up a few forward references should involve less overhead than making a complete second pass of the source program. Why don’t all assemblers use the one-pass technique for efficiency? (4 Marks)
(d) Outline the logic flow of a simple one-pass load-and-go assembler. (5 Marks)
3(a) What would be the advantages and disadvantages of writing a loader using a high level programming language? (6 Marks)
(b) Develop a modular design for relocating and linking loader. (7 Marks)
(c) Compose merits and demerits of all the loading schemes. (7 Marks)
4(a) Explain the method to create macro definitions appearing as a part of the assembly listing with the help of macro processor and assembler. (6 Marks)
(b) How should a programmer decide whether to use a macro or a subroutine to accomplish a given logical function? (4 Marks)
(c) Write an algorithm for a two-pass macro processor in which all macro definitions are processed in the first pass, and all macro invocations are expanded in the second pass.  (6 Marks)
(d) List utility functions and routines that might be shared by an assembler and an integrated macro processor. (4 Marks)
5 (a) Write BNF grammar for JAVA. (6 Marks)
(b) Mention a high-level programming language with which you are familiar. Write a lexical scanner for it. (5 Marks)
(c) What kind of source program errors would be detected during syntactic analysis? (5 Marks)
(d) Write algorithm for scanner, parser and code generator for input/output, definitions, control statements of C language. (4 Marks)
6(a) What are the advantages of having several different classes of interrupts, instead of just one class with flag bits to indicate the interrupt type? (5 Marks)
(b) Explain the method of selection of the number and size of partitions for a system using fixed-partition memory management. (5 Marks)
(c) Mention the advantages of using two buffers for a sequential file. (4 Marks)
(d) Suppose that additional processors are added to a master-slave multiprocessing system. What problems might arise because of this upgrade? (6 Marks)
7(a) Design and implement a debugger. (7 Marks)
(b) Design and implement DDL, DML and DCL operations. (6 Marks)
(c) Design and implement a text editor with options create, open, save, insert, delete, replace, move, copy, cut and paste. (7 Marks)
8 (a) What quality specifications might be appropriate for an operating system for a personal computer? (4 Marks)
(b) Write a complete set of specifications for module Access_symtab. (6 Marks)
(c) Write algorithms for implementing the methods of the object Source_line. (6 Marks)
(d) What are the methods implemented in the class Binary_search_tree which are absent in the class Hash_table? (4 Marks)

Sunday, 21 October 2012

Building construction-model question paper for B.E/B.Tech engineering

1(a) Write a note on sub-surface soundings. (6 Marks)
(b)Draw a typical sketch for combined steel grillage rectangular footing for two steel stanchions. (4 Marks)
(c)How do you account for the load due to light partitions. (6 Marks)
(d)A concrete pile is being driven with a drop hammer weighing 2500 kg and having a free fall of 1.2m. Determine the load carrying capacity of the pile if the penetration in the last blow is 4 mm. (4 Marks)

2(a)Write short notes on flint walling, polygonal rubber masonry and square rubber uncoursed masonry. (6 Marks)
(b) What is brick nogging? explain. (4 Marks)
(c) Write a note on hollow clay block masonry. (4 Marks)
(d) A short wall of 1m length and 20 cm thickness carries an axial load of 90 kN/m. The wall is free at both ends. The height of the wall from the level of foundation footing to the center of roof slab is 4.2 m. Design the masonry for the wall. (6 Marks)

3(a)What is a cavity wall? Mention its advantages. (4 Marks)
(b) Write notes on glass brick partition, metal lath partition and trussed partition. (6 Marks)
(c) Using neat sketches, explain the method of constructing timber flooring. (6 Marks)
(d) Write a note on precast concrete floor. (4 Marks)

4(a) Discuss various cases of loadings transmitted to a lintel from the wall supported by it. (6 Marks)
(b) Explain the method of providing water proof terracing on R.C.C. roof slab. (4 Marks)
(c) Write a note on fastenings used in wood work. (4 Marks)
(d) Plan a stair case for a residential building in which the vertical distance between each floor is 3.36 m. The size of the stair hall is limited to 6 m x 4m. (6 Marks)

5(a) Write a note on encasement window. (4 Marks)
(b) Explain various types of plaster finishes. (6 Marks)
(c) Describe the constituents of a varnish. (4 Marks)
(d) What are the requirements of an ideal material for damp proofing? (6 Marks)

6(a) Compare timber scaffolding and steel scaffolding. (6 Marks)
(b)Write a note on post-construction anti-termite treatment. (5 Marks)
(c) Explain fire-resisting properties of various building materials. (4 Marks)
(d) Compute the thermal transmittance value for a 22.5 cm thick brick outside wall provided with 15 mm thick cement plaster on both the sides. (5 Marks)

7(a)Describe in  brief various methods of proportioning concrete. (5 Marks)
(b)Mention the basic differences between industrial air conditioning and comfort air conditioning. (4 Marks)
(c)Write a note on acoustical defects. (5 Marks)
(d) Explain with the help of sketches, timber form work for a 3m high concrete wall. (6 Marks)

8(a) Write short notes on Gantt chart and milestone chart. (8 Marks)
(b)Explain in brief various types of water closets. (4 Marks)
(c) Sketch a typical foundation plan. Explain. (4 Marks)
(d)Explain earthquake resistant features in stone masonry buildings. (4 Marks)

Friday, 19 October 2012

Lasers and non-linear optics-model question paper for MSc/PhD

1(a)Explain in detail various characteristics of LASER. (4 Marks)
(b) Derive the relations between various Einstein coefficients. (6 Marks)
(c) Differentiate between three level laser systems and four level laser systems. (6 Marks)
(d) Determine the difference in energies between two energy levels which results in a LASER of wavelength 632.8 nm. (4 Marks)
2(a) Write a note on mode coupling. (4 Marks)
(b) What is optical pumping? Explain. (6 Marks)
(c) Explain different types of resonators used in LASER systems. (6 Marks)
(d) Length of the resonant cavity is 50 cm. Determine the number of modes if the refractive index of the active medium is 1.01. (4 Marks)
3(a)Explain the importance of creation and annihilation operators in a quantum mechanical harmonic oscillator. (8 Marks)
(b) What are Fock states? Explain. (4 Marks)
(c) Explain how the rates of absorption and emission are calculated using the second quantized interaction Hamiltonian. (8 Marks)
4(a)Explain the working ammonia MASER. (6 Marks)
(b)Explain the significance of Zeeman splitting in the construction of Hydrogen MASER. (6 Marks)
(c) Deduce the condition for obtaining population inversion in three level MASER system. (8 Marks)
5(a) Differentiate between spatial coherence and temporal coherence. (6 Marks)
(b) Write a note on kinetics of optical absorption. (8 Marks)
(c) Explain collision broadening in plasma systems. (6 Marks)
6(a)Explain with the help of suitable equations, fluorescence quantum yield of LASER. (6 Marks)
(b) Explain the working of Ruby laser. (7 Marks)
(c) Explain the working of Nd:YAG laser. (7 Marks)
7(a) With the help of energy level diagrams, explain the working of He-Cd LASER and He:Se LASER. (10 Marks)
(b) What are vibronic LASERS? Explain. (6 Marks)
(c) Write a note on Excimer LASERS. (4 Marks)
8 (a) What is phase matching? Explain. (6 Marks)
(b) Write a note on optical mixing and parametric generation of light. (8 Marks)
(c) Explain the phenomenon multiquantum photoelectric effect. (6 Marks)

Tuesday, 16 October 2012

Hydrology and water resources engineering-For B.E/B.Tech


1(a) What is ‘water stress index’? Explain its importance. (6 Marks)
(b) Discuss briefly the various uses of water supplies in a civilized society. (4 Marks)
(c) Write a note on ‘hydrologic cycle’. (6 Marks)
(d) Wheat requires 7.5 cms of water every 28 days. The base period for wheat is 140 days. Determine the value of delta for wheat. (4 Marks)
2(a) What are the limitations of radars in weather probes? (4 marks)
(b) Mention the basic forms of clouds and their subdivisions. (4 Marks)
(c) What is cyclonic precipitation? Differentiate between cold front and warm front. (6 Marks)
(d) The values of annual precipitations at a rain gauge station expressed in cm per year in chronological sequence from 1967 to 1976 are indicated below:
70.2     31.7     68.8     50.9     60.3     58.7     43.9     50.3     48.7     67.5
Estimate the value of precipitation which has a recurrence interval of 5 year. (6 Marks)
3(a) Write a note on ground water depletion curve. (4 Marks)
(b) Explain the terms ‘residual rain’, ‘infiltration capacity’ and ‘rainfall interception’. (6 Marks)
(c) Describe any one practical method for the determination of evaporation. (5 Marks)
(d) Assuming the initial infiltration rate of 10 mm/h, final infiltration rate of 5 mm/h and the constant value describing the rate of decay of the difference between the initial and final infiltration rates as 0.95 h-1, calculate the total infiltration depth for a storm lasting 6 h. (5 Marks)
4(a) Enumerate and briefly discuss the various factors which affect the runoff from a catchment. (6 Marks)
(b) Write notes on ‘ instantaneous unit hydrograph’ and ‘design flood’. (6 Marks)
(c) Sketch a typical rating curve and explain its use. (4 Marks)
(d) What return period you would adopt in the design of a culvert on a drain if you are allowed to accept only 5% risk of flooding in the 25 years of expected life of the culvert? (4 Marks)
5(a) Explain the construction, design and maintenance of dikes. (6 Marks)
(b) Explain the terms ‘emergency evacuation’, ‘flood losses’ and ‘flood-plain zoning’. (6 Marks)
(c) Write a note on flood-forecasting. (4 Marks)
(d) Define and explain the term ‘Antecedent precipitation index’. (4 Marks)
6(a) What is a ‘flood control reservoir’? Mention different types. (6 Marks)
(b)Discuss with a neat sketch, the various storage zones of the dam reservoir. (6 Marks)
(c) Write a note on reservoir sedimentation and its control. (4 Marks)
(d) The design annual rainfall for the catchment of a proposed reservoir has been computed to be 99 cm. The catchment area has been estimated to have the mean annual temperature of 200C. The catchment area contributing to the proposed reservoir is 1000 sq.km. Calculate the annual design catchment yield for the reservoir using Khosla’s formula. (4 Marks)
7(a) Explain artificial recharge of ground water. (4 Marks)
(b) Differentiate between shallow dug wells and deep dug wells. (4 Marks)
(c) River valley projects are generally made multipurpose. Why? (4 Marks)
(d) A circular island 600m radius has an effective rainfall infiltration of 4 mm/day. A central well is pumped to deliver a constant discharge of 25 m3/h from an aquifer of hydraulic conductivity of 20 m/day. Diameter of the well is 0.6 m. The head around the island is 10 m. What is the drawdown at the well and at the water divide? (8 Marks)
8 (a) Enlist the various steps involved in engineering economy studies. (6 Marks)
(b) Discuss the hydraulic data that you would collect for proper calibration of a hydrologic model. (4 Marks)
(c) Write a note on flood-forecasting digital computer models. (4 Marks)
(d) An equipment used in construction activity costs INR 40000 at first purchase. The average annual expenditure thereon for OMR is estimated to be INR 9000 for the next three years for which funds to be procured at the beginning of each year. At the end of the third year, it can be scrapped at a then value of INR 10000. If the acceptable rate of return is 15% per annum, what should be the annual income by this machine as reckoned at the end of each year? (6 Marks)

Saturday, 6 October 2012

Dock and Harbour engineering-For B.E/B.Tech


1(a) How are the harbor surveys plotted? (6 Marks)
(b) What are the common errors in sextant and how are they rectified? (6 Marks)
(c) Write a note on formation of bars at the mouths of the rivers. (4 Marks)
 (d) The charted level is +3m. The height of the tide is 4m. What will be the effective depth of water? What will be the height of the tide at -0.2m?     (4 Marks)
2(a) What is a wind rose? Explain with a neat figure. (4 marks)
(b)Describe the different terms used in ship technology. (6 Marks)
(c) Write a note on the usage of figures of projected traffic while planning a new port. (6 Marks)
(d) Wind blows at 20 kmph. What is the pressure exerted on a surface at right angles to the wind? (4 Marks)
3(a) Explain Littoral drift and tidal currents. (6 Marks)
(b) Explain in detail different types of gravity wharves. (6 Marks)
(c) Write a short note on quay. (4 Marks)
(d) Design a channel and basin for a design ship of 25000 DWT for an estuarian port where tidal range is 7.2 m and wave height 3.1m outside harbor. (4 Marks)
4(a) What is rubble mound breakwater? Discuss the points in favour and against. (6 Marks)
(b) Distinguish between Mole and Pier. (6 Marks)
(c) What is a buoy? Illustrate its main shapes. (4 Marks)
(d) In a rubble mound breakwater, with maximum wave height of 2m, and slope 1 in 3, what is the weight of individual cap stone required for stones with specific weights of 2, 1.8 and 1.6. (4 Marks)
5(a) What is a platform mooring system? Explain. (6 Marks)
(b) What are the factors affecting RO-RO ferry service? Explain. (6 Marks)
(c) Compare the functions of dry dock and a lock. (4 Marks)
(d) Write notes on Groyne and Sand dune. (4 Marks)
6 (a) Write short notes on syncrolift and gridiron. (4 Marks)
(c) What are the different types of cranes and the suitability of each type used for cargo handling? (8 Marks)
(d) The biggest vessel to be slipped is a tug of 30m length and 3m draught. If the height of the cradle block from the slipway deck is to be 0.75 m and the inclination of the slipway to the horizontal is 3030. Find the total length of the slipway.  (4 Marks)
7(a) Distinguish between a transit shed and a warehouse. Discuss their functions. (6 Marks)
(b) Explain different types of harbor crafts. (4 Marks)
(c) What is the need for Navigational aids? Mention and explain different types of aides used on shore and at sea. (6 Marks)
(d) The quay is 220m in length and the shed is to be 175m. Assume that vertically bags 2m high could be stacked. What will be the width of the required shed for the storage of 10000 tonnes and with 40% space for movement? (4 Marks)
8 (a) Discuss the uses of hydraulic dredge on a pipe line and with hopper. (6 Marks)
(b) With the help of a neat sketch, explain the working of suction dredger. (8 Marks)
(c) Enumerate and briefly explain the types of cofferdams. (6 Marks)